Was Paul the Thirteenth Apostle of Jesus?

Fred said:
you're in deep doo-doo.
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So was Jesus who had the same from our Father who is God. Look what happened to him for the same reason. He was in deep doo doo as well to the same religious minds who see Gods way as deep doo doo as you just stated.
 
Gary Mac said:
So was Jesus who had the same from our Father who is God. Look what happened to him for the same reason. He was in deep doo doo as well to the same religious minds who see Gods way as deep doo doo as you just stated.
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Jesus chose Paul.
You reject Paul.
Therefore, you reject Jesus.

Thanks for making that easy for me.
 
Fred said:
Yes


Which proves you don't know both of them.
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Never met Jesus nor Paul have you? But I have met the Christ and is very clear who Christ is for Christ in me is the same anointing who was in Jesus, he was anointed of Gods Spirit as well.

Jesus was gone when Paul made the scene.

Which proves you dont know any of these, especially the Christ to be anointed of God yourself. It is obvious that all you know is what you have read that someone wrote about them.

The only reality in any of this is God manifest in you, Christ in you just as He was in Jesus.

But for me, Christ is the better way and Jesus was teacher of Gods anointing, man really is the temple of Him. But sense you follow Paul in his doctrine instead of Jesus in his, Paul is your way instead of Jesus to have the Christ as Jesus did. .
 
Fred said:
No, I did not go out on a limb.
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R.T. France (Anglican/Protestant Evangelical) --

"The terms [binding and loosing] thus refer to a teaching function, and more specifically one of making halakhic pronouncements [i.e. relative to laws not written down in the Jewish Scriptures but based on an oral interpretation of them] which are to be 'binding' on the people of God. In that case Peter's 'power of the keys' declared in [Matthew] 16:19 is not so much that of the doorkeeper... but that of the steward (as in Is. 22:22, generally regarded as the Old Testament background to the metaphor of keys here), whose keys of office enable him to regulate the affairs of the household." (R.T. France, as cited in Butler/Dahlgren/Hess, page 54)
 
Fred said:
This passage refers to Jesus (Revelation 3:7).
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you need other protestants?

Joachim Jeremias in an extended passage from Kittel's Greek standard TDNT --

"...the key of David is now (3:7) the key which Christ has in His hands as the promised shoot of David. This is the key to God's eternal palace. The meaning of the description is that Christ has unlimited sovereignty over the future world. He alone controls grace and judgment. He decides irrevocably whether a man will have access to the salvation of the last age or whether it will be witheld from him...Materially, then, the keys of the kingdom of God are not different from the key of David...This is confirmed by the fact that in Mt. 16:19, as in Rev. 3:7, Jesus is the One who controls them. But in what sense is the power of the keys given to Peter? ....the handing over of the keys is not just future. It is regarded as taking place now... There are numerous instances to show that in biblical and later Jewish usage handing over the keys implies full authorisation. He who has the keys has full authority. Thus, when Eliakim is given the keys of the palace he is appointed the royal steward (Is. 22:22, cf. 15). When Jesus is said to hold the keys of death and Hades (Rev. 1:18) or the key of David (3:7), this means that He is, not the doorkeeper, but the Lord of the world of the dead and the palace of God...Hence handing over the keys implies appointment to full authority. He who has the keys has on the one side control, e.g., over the council chamber or treasury, cf. Mt. 13:52, and on the other the power to allow or forbid entry, cf. Rev. 3:7...Mt. 23:13 leads us a step further. This passage is particularly important for an understanding of Mt. 16:19 because it is the only one in the NT which presupposes an image not found elsewhere, namely, that of the keys of the kingdom (royal dominion) of God...Mt. 23:13 shows us that the scribes of the time of Jesus claimed to possess the power of the keys in respect of this kingdom...They exercised this by declaring the will of God in Holy Scripture in the form of preaching, teaching and judging. Thereby they opened up for the congregation a way into this kingdom...by acting as spiritual leaders of the congregation....As Lord of the Messianic community He thus transferred the keys of God's royal dominion, i.e. the full authority of proclamation, to Peter...In Rabb. lit. binding and loosing are almost always used in respect of halakhic decisions...The scribe binds (declares to be forbidden) and looses (declares to be permitted)...In Mt. 16:19, then, we are to regard the authority to bind and to loose as judicial. It is the authority to pronounce judgment on unbelievers and to promise forgiveness to believers." (Jeremias from Kittel/Bromiley, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, volume 3, page 748-751)
 
Arch Stanton said:
The scribe binds (declares to be forbidden) and looses (declares to be permitted)...In Mt. 16:19, then, we are to regard the authority to bind and to loose as judicial. It is the authority to pronounce judgment on unbelievers and to promise forgiveness to believers." (Jeremias from Kittel/Bromiley, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, volume 3, page 748-751)
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to pronounce judgment on unbelievers and to promise forgiveness to believers
That is what takes place with others as well (John 20:23).
 
Fred said:
to pronounce judgment on unbelievers and to promise forgiveness to believers
That is what takes place with others as well (John 20:23).
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I am not sure who you think the 'others' are.... The priests have to hear the sins in order to forgive/retain.
 
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