Our Lord's God
Well-known member
Sorry but I won't be participating in delusions with you today.
Our God, YHWH Alone.
- Thread starter JNelson
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Sorry but I won't be participating in delusions with you today.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
You really can't muster anymore than this can you?
How about attempting an intelligent interpretation of 1 John 1:8?
Or are you completely incapable but want us to pretend otherwise?
The question at the end of post 195 has gone unanswered by you, heretic.
Keep hiding!
Yahweh will increase
Well-known member
Sorry but for starters, the name and title of Lord Jesus doesn't appear in that passage and furthermore, they were out of line in casting lots for this to begin with, for Paul was God's chose through Christ.
Show me one verse where it actually says that they prayed to the Lord Jesus in those exact words, and where did any bow the knee and pray to him like the many times in scripture that we see that they did unto Yahweh God?
Wrong again, for all that Paul is doing with this passage is revealing that now it is through acceptance of Jesus to the glory of Yahweh that we call upon Yahweh, for Jesus is our mediator between us and Yahweh.
You see, when you get right down to it, you really don't have any solid proof of your belief on this and if you want to go to Acts where Stephan is being stoned, Steven didn't pray to Jesus but rather called on Yahweh and also asked Jesus to receive his spirit and again, Jesus is still the head of the church.
So what other passages do you want to use to flog that dead horse doctrine of yours with?
You already affirmed this is a prayer to the Lord Jesus.
Matthew 6:9 does not forbid praying to the Lord Jesus
Because it proves the Lord Jesus is God. Since all three Trinitarian Persons are omniscient, if you pray to one it means all three will hear you prayer. But if you pray to one, who responds to your prayer? That Person or potentially another Person? I ask because Trinitarians state that the...
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There is more than one way to express a truth claim.
Romans 10:8-13
(8) But what does it say? “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart” (that is, the word of faith which we preach):
(9) that if you confess with your mouth the Lord Jesus and believe in your heart that God has raised Him from the dead, you will be saved.
(10) For with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
(11) For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame.”
(12) For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for the same Lord over all is rich to all who call upon Him.
(13) For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved." (NKJV)
The use of "For" in vv. 10-13 connects back to the Lord in reference Jesus in verse 9.
Thus, all the underlined words above refer to the Lord Jesus.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
You really think that game will work for you don't you?
Now, little children, abide in Him, so that when He appears, we may have confidence and not shrink away from Him in shame at His coming. 29 If you know that He is righteous, you know that everyone also who practices righteousness is born of Him. See how great a love the Father has bestowed on us, that we would be called children of God and we are. For this reason the world does not know us, because it did not know Him. 2 Beloved, now we are children of God, and it has not appeared as yet what we will be. We know that when He appears, we will be like Him, because we will see Him just as He is. 3 And everyone who has this hope on Him purifies himself, just as He is pure. 4 Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness. 5 You know that He appeared in order to take away sins; and in Him there is no sin. 6 No one who abides in Him sins; no one who sins has seen Him or knows Him. 7 Little children, make sure no one deceives you; the one who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is righteous; 8 the one who practices sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. The son of God appeared for this purpose, to destroy the works of the devil. No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. 10 By this the children of God and the children of the devil are obvious: anyone who does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor the one who does not love his brother.
It's pretty plain that John is referring to the Father including verse 7.
This is what is called basic reading comprehension. The facts do not conform to your theological desires.
Your turn. Answer my question. But answering my question is just not going to happen is it?
But in verse 5 when it reads, "He appeared in order to take away sins" this refers to Jesus.
Notice that when He (Jesus) appeared in order to take away sins (1 John 3:5) corresponds with the Son of God appearing to destroy the works of the devil (1 John 3:8).
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Yahweh will increase
Well-known member
No, I didn't and if you want to claim that I did, then you have to reveal where exactly and you haven't done this.
But you don't have even one to start with.
Sorry but the actual emphasis of Paul in using Joel 2:35 to begin with was to reveal that even Joel confirmed that whosoever Jew or Gentile would call upon Yahweh through Jesus Christ would be accepted in God and that is why he said this and verses 11-13 clearly reveals it also.
What is Paul's point therefore?
This is his point below.
(11) For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame.”
(12) For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for the same Lord over all is rich to all who call upon Him.
(13) For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved." (NKJV)
So you go right ahead in your stubbornness and believe and teach contrary to the truth and you will soon enough find out what that was worth unto you.
By the way, do you not even know the difference between "confessing Jesus as Lord" and "calling upon the name of Yahweh", for Paul's point was not to reveal that both are the same like what you believe about it but only that now through faith in Jesus the door of heaven is open to those who believe to call upon Yahweh God through Jesus.
So no matter how much you want to argue about it, confessing Jesus as Kurios is not the same exact thing as calling upon Yahweh, for confessing and calling are hardly synonymous in their meanings.
Yahweh will increase
Well-known member
Colossians 1:15 "who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature".
God appears through Jesus and Jesus very clearly reveals this in John 14:8-10 also and if you follow the context without your bias, you should see that when Jesus said "have I been so long with you Phillip and yet you still don't know me" Jesus was not speaking for himself but rather for the Father who was dwelling within him and manifesting himself through Jesus.
For Jesus himself made this clear in verse 10 of that same context. "the words that I speak unto you, I speak not for myself but it is the Father who dwells within me, he is doing the works".
So it wasn't only Jesus who appeared at the first advent but also the Father within Jesus as well and Paul put it this way, "for God was in (dwelling within) Christ and reconciling the world unto himself".
The link was already supplied, heretic.
You didn't address the evidence I supplied which demonstrates the Lord in Romans 10:13 refers to Jesus because it refutes your heresy.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
There is no "Jesus not the Father" during Jesus' earthly ministry.
It seems you need to read the Gospels again.
Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak from myself but the Father abiding in me does the works. Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me otherwise believe because of the works themselves.
If I had not done among them the works which no one else did, they would not have sin; but now they have both seen and hated me and my Father as well.
Do you not hear him?
You actually seem to think I should be surprised with this response.
John 8:43ff.
Thanks for your admission that the singular pronoun applies to more than one.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
I said no such thing. Only a madman would say a singular personal pronoun refers to plural persons.
John 14:9.
You affirmed 1 John 3:7 refers to the Father.
It refers to Jesus.
It was easy to refute your confusion.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
Yes, the context demands it.
Confirmation bias is not a refutation.
But in your head it seems to be.
Heretics are easy to refute. See post 208.
Thanks again for making this easy for me.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
Show us how your confirmation bias routines amount to anything other than what they are.
None of the evidence I supplied in post 208 was refuted.
Thanks for having such a warped belief system that is so easy to refute.
Our Lord's God
Well-known member
Oh but it was.
You simply respond with more of your confirmation bias routines.
You said: Notice that when He (Jesus) appeared in order to take away sins (1 John 3:5) corresponds with the Son of God appearing to destroy the works of the devil (1 John 3:8).
Notice what you are completely blind to:
If I do not do the works of My Father, do not believe me.
If I had not done among them the works which no one else did, they would not have sin; but now they have both seen and hated me and my Father as well.
He who has seen me has seen the Father; how can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? 10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me? The words that I say to you I do not speak from myself but the Father abiding in me does His works. 11 Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me; otherwise believe because of the works themselves.
Who appeared?
Whose works?
Why can't you hear Jesus? John 8:43ff
How can you say, "Show us the Father"?